CBSE Sample Paper as per CCE new syllabus (Summative Assessment - I, Term 1) | Class X Social Science (Guess Paper - 2)

Class 10 Social Science (CBSE - CCE pattern)

(Sample Paper / Guess Paper - 2)

Summative Assessment - I (Term I)

Time: 3hours           

M.M.: 80

Instructions

1. The question paper has 36 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.

2. Marks are indicated against each question.

3. This question paper consist of two parts i.e. Part I and Part II. Part I of the question paper contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from serial Number 1 to 16 of 1 mark each. These sixteen questions of Part I are to be answered on a separate sheet provided. This part has to be completed in first 30 minutes only and the answer sheet must be handed over to the invigilator before starting Part II.

4. In Part II, there are twenty questions from serial no. 17 to 36 which are to be attempted in 2 hours and 30 minutes. This part should be attempted the stipulated only after time given for Part I.

5. Questions from serial number 17 to 31 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each

6. Questions from serial number 32 to 35 are 4 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 100 words each

7. Question number 36 is a map question of 4 marks from Geography only. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

8. An additional 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper only.

Part - I

1. By the 1890’s South Africa contributed over 20% of the world:

 (a) Iron production (b) Copper production

 (c) Silver production (d) Gold production                    

OR

   The company appointed him as a paid servant to supervise weavers. He was called:

 (a) Officer (b) Tehsildar  (c) Gomastha (d) None of these

OR

   Workers mass housing schemes were planned to prevent the London poor from turning:

 (a) Poorer (b) Richer (c) Rebellious (d) None of these

2. In which year Rinderpest arrived in Africa ?

 (a) 1880’s (b) 1890’s (c) 1870’s (d) 1990’s

OR

   These two writers were associated with Hindi cinema during that time:

 (a) Ismat Singh and Saadat Hassan Khan (b) Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Hassan Pathan

 (c) Ismat Chughtai and Saadat Hassan Manto (d) None of these.

OR

  Mahatma Gandhi launched Civil Disobedience Movement in :

 (a) 1931 (b) 1951 (c) 1941 (d) 1961

3. Amar Jiban was the autobiography of :

 (a) Rashsundari Devi (b) Kalpana Devi

 (c) Mahasundari Devi (d) None of these

OR

  Pickwick papers was written by:

 (a) Henry Fielding (b) Walter Scott (c) Charles Dickens (d) Emile Scott

4. This was the first printed book -

 (a) Bible (b) Mahabharata (c) Ramayana (d) All of these.

OR

Leo Tolstoy wrote extremely on –

 (a) Modern life and community (b) Rural life and community

 (c) Urban life and community (d) None o these

5. Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilized are called -

 (a) Developed resources (b) Stock (c) Internal Resources (d) Potential resources

6. These two factors are majorly responsible for depletion of forest resources –

(a) Mining and Fuel-wood collection (b) Mining and Grazing

(c) Foods and Grazing (d) Grazing and Fuel wood collection

7. This was the largest artificial lake built in 11^th century:

 (a) Kalinga lake (b) Kolhapur lake (c) Bennur lake (d) Bhopal lake

8. ‘Seri culture’ is the process of rearing of silk worms for the production of :

 (a) Silk fiber (b) Golden fiber (c) Silver fiber (d) White fiber

9. ‘Community Government’ exists in –

 (a) Germany (b) Srilanka (c) USA (d) Belgium

10. Power is shared among different political parties that represent –

 (a) Different candidates (b) Same ideologies

 (c) Different ideologies and social groups (d) None of these.

11. At least 1/3^rd of all positions are reserved for –

 (a) men (b) women (c) children (d) scheduled castes

12. ‘Feminist Movement’ was based on –

 (a) liberty (b) equality (c) participation (d) power

13. This state has a low Infant Mortality rate –

 (a) Kerala (b) Bihar (c) West Bengal (d) Himachal Pradesh

14. Life expectancy at birth means –

 (a) average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth

 (b) average expected length of life of a person at the time of death

 (c) average expected length of a child at the time of birth

 (d) None of these

15. Tertiary sector is also called the following sector -

 (a) Industrial sector (b) Factory sector

 (c) Service sector (d) Working sector

16. Sahara Airlines and BSES are examples of -

 (a) public sector (b) private sector (c) mixed sector (d) all of the above.

Part - II

17. What is referred to as G - 77 countries? How can G - 77 be seen as reaction to the activities of Bretton Woods twins.

OR

  Why did poor peasants and artisans begin to work for merchants?

OR

  Give any three reasons to explain, why Mumbai was known as a city of dreams?

18. Discuss the salient features of Indian Manuscripts before the age of Print.

     Explain any three reasons for the popularity of novels in the 18th century Europe.

19. Print did not only stimulate the publications of conflicting opinions among different communities but also connected them in 19th century India. Comment.

OR

     In what ways did the novels in colonial India prove useful for the nationalists?

20. What were the distinct effects of print culture on the life of women? Explain.

OR

    ‘Novels helped in creating a sense of social awareness in India’. Comment.

21. “India’s vast and diverse size is the most important resource”. Comment.

22. Account for the factors responsible for large scale deforestation in India. (Any three).

23. What is rain harvesting? What are its objectives?

24. State the main elements of Power Sharing model evolved in Belgium.

25. Discuss three factors that determine the outcomes of politics of social divisions.

26. Explain the cross cutting differences with suitable examples.

27. What are Minority Rights? How are they important in a Democratic State?   

28. In State A, 75% of the people living in the rural area use a ration shop, whereas in State B only 8% of the rural people do so. Where should people be better off and why?

29. Study the table and answer the questions below:

Table : Per capita income of select states.

State	Per Capita Income for 2002-03   (in Rs)
Punjab	26000
Kerala	22800
Bihar	5700

  (i) Which state has the highest per capita income in an year?

 (ii) Which state has the lowest per capita income in an year?

(iii) Which state is better one and why?

30. How is tertiary sector different from other sectors? Give examples.

31. Give a few examples of public sector activities and explain why the government has taken them up?

32. How did the abolition of Corn Laws in Britain led to the emergence of a global agricultural economy?

OR

    ‘Industrialization in India was a mixed blessing’. Comment.

OR

    Compare London and Bombay as modern cities.

33. What is Bio-technology? What are its merits for Indian agriculture?

34. Describe the center-state relations in Indian Federalism.

35.What does the history of developed countries indicate about the shifts that have taken place between different sectors?

36. On an outline map of India, mark the following –

 (a) Type of soil (b) A Bio Reserve (c) A multi-river project.

OR

 (a) Area rich in laterite soil (b) Kanheri National park (c) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam

 Only for Blind students in lieu of Q.No.36

  (i) Name a National Park in Orissa.

 (ii) On which river is the Tehri Dam located?

(iii) Name a state where alluvial soil is found in North India.